SmartIQ Rank Predictor - The Smartest way to Participate, Practice & Perform on CET Medical Engineering Entrance Exam 2016

Friday, 30 January 2015

How to take CET Online Mock Test

Take the assessment in 3 easy steps:
Step 1 : Register with Smart IQ, for FREE.  /
Step 2 : Take the Mock test online.
Step 3 : Predict your possible CET ranking with Smart IQ.

Wednesday, 28 January 2015

How to plan & prepare for entrance exams?

Entrance exams these days have gone from being a complicated process to a regular routine for securing an admission for any professional courses. So, while everyone tries to crack this exam for their admissions, they are employing different modes of preparation. But, what most suggest is the continuous and constant practice on the subject topics and test syllabus. Concentrating on the syllabus of board exams helps as the questions framed are mostly from the board exam’s curriculum. Only the approach for exam are changed. Everything will be asked in a multiple choice question (MCQ) type, making it a more comprehensive analysis of one’s knowledge. Therefore, one has to plan well to perform well in their entrance exams. 

Preparation Planning

It’s more focused on the precision of the preparation. And this will include the planning of a shrewd strategy for taking these exams. Experts imply that creating a study plan to cover the topics do help in effective preparation for the exams. This is a particular concern that arises once when the candidates decide to start their preparation for entrance exams. Based on what the experts concur, it is quite important to prepare well and effective that one can crack the exam. For an individual’s thoughts and course can eventually give them the best results for their hard work and perseverance. And for effective preparation there are few things to look into, which are as follows:

The course curriculum is one of the main things to look-up on while starting the preparations for the exam. Follow the contents and prepare an active study plan to get through the preparation.

Learn the context and understand the weightage of each topic in the subject that will influence in the test. And it is always emphasized on concentrating on the subject topics that have higher weightage. Concentrate more on the topics that have more weightage in the entrance exams, which will have significant impact in the score too.

There are certain topics that present in a subject, which needs to be covered in other subjects too. For instance, certain topics in mathematics (like calculus & derivatives) are repetitive in the subject of physics under various topics. Therefore, it is advised not to skip those topics at any cost. If there is any difficulty spend more time on those topics that can come around for other topics too. 

Once the preparation schedule is through, it is advisable to create enough time to cover those topics that have more weightage in the entrance exams. Also, make sure that no formulas, key equations, principles, laws and derivations etc., are left unattended.

And during preparations there is always the possibility of 2 scenarios. One will be the case where the student is aware of the particular topics before and the other will be a case of no idea or whatsoever on the topics. The key is to isolate the time constraint effectively to cover those topics. It’s always never a good sign of either, spend too much time trying to learn something new or not to spend too much time on already known topics. Also, analyze the interest of yours carefully. The subjects and topics the student likes the most and topics they are afraid to prepare. Apply the same principle as mentioned above.

How do you like to practice for Medical Engineering Entrance Exam - Poll your Answer

Influence of Online Tests

The demand for the professional courses in the last decade has stirred up the liveliness and importance among the students, both on the undergraduate level and postgraduate level, to secure their admissions in top flight colleges. Currently, for the purposes of admissions, we have a significant number of entrance exams on different levels. For an International level, there are TOEFL, IELTS, GRE, and GMAT. In the National level MAT, CAT, AIEEE, JEE, AIIMS and AIPMT. And in the regional level or the state level, there are CETs for different states like, KEA-CET, EAMCET, TANCET, MH-CET, JK-CET, KEAM-CEE and the ilk. These cover both the Undergraduate and the Postgraduate level in India depending on the state that one belongs to.

And there are few entrance exams that one can take through online. And that is the option available for students now as an added feature or an advantage, as some would say. These online exams are configured with proper algorithms and makes the evaluation process automated. This is preferred by institutions, as it reduces most of the human effort. Also, they could save a lot of time concentrating on the evaluation and publishing the results. So, don’t be surprised, if the entrance tests for admissions are conducted online in the future. Only feature that differs will be the requirements and procedures demanded by the institutions.

Based on the exam requirements, there are coaching classes or private tutoring taken for students, especially for the purpose of preparation of entrance exams. Recently, after the introduction of the online prep test, there has been a shift in the momentum for such coaching classes and tutoring. As, the tests provided there in those centres, are quite the similar experience received from taking those mock prep tests online. The only difference is the physical presence. This is also, the pretty much advantage in terms of the expenses spent on those coaching classes.

On that note, there are quite a number of online prep test applications for the sole purpose of Entrance exam preparation. With the advancement in the technology and software solutions we are able to bring you the most exquisite assessment programs. Most applications work online, whereas some needs the installation of their software in the PC or laptop. But, people prefer it taking tests online.

Some test offers the students a limited number of questions, where some offer the scenario of number of questions asked and time similar to that of the entrance exams. This gives a better overview of taking online exams and provides the right practice once needs to write the exam. Since these online tests are not time consuming, as the results are published once you complete the exams this could help in better preparation for the authentic entrance exams.

How important are coaching classes for entrance exam preparation?

Separate coaching or private tutoring are quite essential if the students want some sort of medium to solve the queries and discuss the doubts in any section(s) of the subject. Provided, the students will have to be regular to those classes. The added advantage to join these coaching classes, which is the candidates will certainly have an impact in their preparation. 

One can always use the assistance and presence of teacher’s / trainer’s experience, which is an advantage in preparation, understanding the topics and discussion of the queries. Even in the case of learning new topics on subject(s), it reduces the time to learn those topics easier and faster, which will help in having the same influence that one will have during group study sessions.

Generally, candidates go for coaching as it provides the idea on the weightage of the subject    topics that will have an influence in the questions asked. Frequently Asked Questions and the likely questioning methods and patterns to be asked in the question papers are also discussed. It also provides a platform and an opportunity to take the tests on a regular basis.

In the recent past, the same job has been done by online coaching institutes and test providers. The  experience provided by the online test provider is similar to those of a coaching center and the only difference will be, being online or being physical respectively. 

This online test provider is an easier and preferred option these days that students tend to follow, as  it reduces the burden of commute and also saves the time for travelling to the coaching centers. As one can take tests, clear their doubts and discuss questions in the forums online being at home. The Online test providers also make the exam preparations easier.

Effectiveness of Mind Mapping

Mind mapping is a technique, where an idea is developed gradually through the illustration of words and drawings or pictures based on its associated features and descriptions. It can also be referred to as a method of taking notes on a specific topic or a subject. This gives a better overview and understanding, whilst creating or developing a mind map for the fundamentals of a particular concept. In this process, the main theme is structured out on the basis of its characteristics and the information that one brainstorms. Mind mapping is basically a form of conventional notes taking method with the inclusion and adaptation of certain new aspects, where we can use related pictures and colour codes to differentiate the importance of topics interconnected with the main subject matter.

Uses of Mind Map:

Mind map is proven to be exceedingly creative and most effective method to brainstorm ideas and memorizenew topics. This practise helps a person to recall things easier, as the process also involves pictorial representations of the main theme. This can make the remembering more effective, be more creative and to solve problems effortlessly than before. This Mind maps can also be helpful in summarizing a particular topic that are complex in terms of understanding. This creates a complete analysis and a consolidated overview of the subject that one has to cover and brings it all under a single map tree. 

Benefits of Mind Map:

These mind maps, as already mentioned, can be very effective to remember and brainstorm for students. This very much benefits the generation of a new concept. This increases the problem solving ability of a student. With the help of mind map, one can simplify and understand the relationship amongst new concepts. A well developed mind map can reveal the connections that are interlined between the main topics. For students, this technique is said to enhance the thought processes and can increase the memorizing capability too. They help in planning things in accordance. Once they are mapped appropriately, they make organizing easier that can hold enormous information in a single map.

How to Mind Map:

There are a 5 steps involved to create a mind map for brainstorming any idea or a new topic.

To begin with, for brainstorming any idea or a topic, create a central idea and examine its principal concept. Soon after deciding the topic to explore, brainstorm on the same for all the associated and related topics. Its not a problem to consume time in building a central core idea as long as it is strong and vibrant. Its better to start the central theme with an image representing it.

Then based on that particular stream branch out the hints on the same topic. Find out all the  important relevant concepts that can be related to the topic in every possible way. List out those topics and branch it out to the material based on their importance. The opinions and details should never be restricted to a certain number. Branch out as many characteristics for the topic as possible.

Soon after listing the topics, generate appropriate keywords by brainstorming and create a synchronous tree from the main central idea. Make sure that the keyword is not too long to remember. Shorter the keyword, the better one can remember. With shorter keywords, you can store lager quantity of information. Add up as many relevant topics to the main indigenous idea or theme. This will give a proper integration during the stages of revision.

While generating the keywords, try using different colour combination to display the keywords. It generally helps in differentiating the importance between the keywords. This kind of colour coding really helps when identifying the categories, analysing the generated information and the highlights of the gathered topics and subsequent connections framed. The added advantage is that the colour coding makes the map look attractive. 

With all the aforementioned steps the most effective way to remember is to picturize with suitable images. Even clip art would make more significant difference than just reading the keywords whilst revising or memorizing. A picture is worth a thousand words’ – as the images are processed quicker and better than any keywords or a language. For the purpose of healthier recollection, we recommend to use images that is a commanding technique for this Mind Maps.
The aforementioned are just an example of how to create a Mind Map. It is not mandatory to follow exactly what is been said here. You can modify the steps what works best and suits you.

Tuesday, 27 January 2015

Know your CET 2015 Ranking

Karnataka CET Application Fee & Important Dates

Application Fee:-
  • Rs. 400/- for GM,2A,2B,3A & 3B.
  • Rs. 200/- for SC, ST & Cat-1 candidates.
  • Deposit the fee through DD in favour of The Comptroller, KVAFSU, Bidar / UHS Bagalkot / UAS Dharwad / UHAS Shimoga/ UAS Bangalore / UAS Raichur.
Tentative Dates to Remember:-
  • Date of Notification:- March 2015
  • Last date for submission of filed application forms to the Principals of schools and colleges:- April 2015
  • Last date for submission of filed application forms to the Principals of Institutions to the KEA:- April 2015
  • Last date for submission of filed application forms by Karnataka Candidates outside Karnataka by Speed Post to KEA (Including Horanadu, Gadinadu and other Karnataka candidates):- April 2015
  • Date of reaching the Admission Tickets by KEA to all the Applicants:- April 2015
  • Date of COMMON ENTRANCE TEST:- May 2015
  • Date of Kannada language Test: (ONLY for Horanadu & Gadinadu Kannadiga candidates):- May 2015
  • Submission of special categories certificates to KEA (NCC, Sports, Defence Ex-Defence, Anglo Indians, CAPF EX-CAPF):- May 2015
  • Date of publication of ‘CET 2014′ Provisional Answer Key:- May 2015
  • Date of Practical Examination for UG course applicants for Agriculture / Horticulture / Veterinary Universitiesunder “Agriculturist Quota”:- May 2015
  • Last date for submission of objections, if any, regarding Answer Key:- May 2015
  • Last date for appearing to NATA:- May 2015
  • Last date for submission of NATA scores along with a copy of the 2nd PU / 12 Std. Marks card to KEA:- May 2015
  • Date of publication of CET – 2014 Results along with applied Answer Key:- May 2015
  • Entry of Options for First Round From:- June to July 2015
  • Publication of Mock Allotment Results:- July 2015
  • Payment of Fees and Issue of Admission orders:- July 2015
  • Last date for reporting to colleges:- July 2015
  • Payment of Fees and Issue of Admission orders:- July 2015
  • Last date for reporting to colleges:- July 2015
  • Payment of Fees and Issue of Admission orders:- July 2015
  • Last date for reporting to colleges:- July 2015

Procedure to apply for KCET 2015 Application Form:-

  • Visit
  • Downlaod the Brochure and application form.
  • Enter all the details in the application form in the prescribed format.
  • Send at the concerned address with all the documents and demand draft.
Take Free Online Mock Tests & Predict your Rank

Karnataka CET Exam Admit Card 2015

Karnataka CET Exam Admit Card/Hall Ticket 2015: Karnataka Examination Authority (KEA) has released Karnataka Common Entrance Test (CET) exam admit card 2015 on its official website. The KCET exam will be conducted in the month of May, 2015 at various examination centers.  The candidates who have applied in this examination, they are eagerly waiting for Karnataka Common Entrance Test exam hall tickets 2015 as soon available on official website 
Important Dates:
Karnataka Common Entrance Test will be conducted on: May, 2015
Official website:
Test your knowledge ... Take Free Online Mock Test & predict Possible CET Rank  SmartIQ Rank Predictor...  


7th February 2015  ---   10 AM to 11.10 AM ( 70 minutes )  Physics & Chemistry
8th February  2015  ---  10 AM to 11.10 AM ( 70 minutes )   Maths & Biology

Monday, 26 January 2015

Karnataka CET 2015 Notification

KCET 2015 Notification,Karnataka CET 2015,Application form

KCET 2015 Notification : Karnataka Examination Authority (KEA) invites Online Application from the eligible candidates who are the residents of Karnataka or migrants from Jammu & Kashmiri States to get admission for 1st Year in the Professional Education Institutions of Karnataka for the Year 2015-2016.Eligible candidates can apply for Karnataka CET 2015 Exam on or before last date
KCET 2015 Notification offers courses :
1.Medical / Dental
2.Ayurveda,Homoeopathy,Unani,Naturopathy and Yoga
3.Engineering / Technology (BE/B.Tech)
4.Architecture (B.Arch)
6.Bachelor of Veterinary,Science and Animal Husbandary
7.B.Tech (Food Technology),B.Tech (Dairy Technology),B.F.Sc (Bachelor of Fisheries Science),B.Tech (Food Science and Tech) and B.Sc (Ag.Marketing and C-operation). (Agriculture Engineering)
10.2nd Year B.Pharma
Eligibility Criteria to appear for KCET 2015 :
Candidates must have passed in 2nd PUC or 12th Standard Class Pass from the recognised educational institutions located in the state of Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN academic years.
Key Point should be remembered by the candidates for KCET 2015 :

Candidates who appeared for KCET in any of the previous years and got seat seat in any of the discipline are not eligible to appear for KCET 2015 to get seat in same discipline.How ever candidates are eligible to get seat in any of the different discipline.
Minimum pass marks for all horanadu and gadinadu kannadiga candidates is 12 out of 50 marks in Kannada Language.These marks also considered for allotment of seats.
How to Apply for KCET 2015 :
Application form will be available in the schools/colleges located in the karnataka state where the students are pursued 2nd PUC from the respective colleges.First the candidates has to visit KEA website to download challan fom by providing bank name,name,date of birth,category e.t.c.Then the candidates has to pay requisite application fee in any of the bank branches.After paying,bank will give two copies of challan,these challan should be taken by the candidates and give in the respected colleges or schools they were studied for the broucher.
Candidates who qualified in KCET 2015 Entrance exam will be allotted seats on merit wise.The seat allotment to the candidates can be done through Online only.The college and course will be allotted to the candidates by the computer based on their rankings and options available in particular collegs as per the seat matrix issued by the government.
CET 2015 Online Mock Tests on
CET  Rank Predictor

Thursday, 22 January 2015

CET Online Mock Test for 2nd PUC Students

Online Mock Test Schedule:

7th February 2015  ---   10 AM to 11.10 AM ( 70 minutes )  Physics & Chemistry

8th February  2015  ---  10 AM to 11.10 AM ( 70 minutes )   Maths & Biology

register through

Take Test & Predict your CET Rank.

Analyse your skill & Practice more to get Top Rank

SmartIQ CET Rank Predictor

Sunday, 18 January 2015

Easy way to Prctice for CET Medical Engineering Entrance Exam

1. Plan & Execute
Students usually spend more time in planning than actually executing those plans. Planning is art of the possible. So, create a plan which can be successfully executed. Give more time to topics which you find difficult and keep a buffer so that you can complete some pending tasks.

2. Identify the Strength and Weakness
Everyone has specific strengths and weaknesses. Playing to your strengths and sailing through the weaknesses is the best exam strategy you can bet on.

3. Find out Useful Books and Syllabus
Students have a habit of referring innumerable books for each subject even though most of them convey the same thing. Having too many books would lead to confusion during time of revision and most of your doubts would remain unresolved without a go to book.

4. Read the questions carefully
Examiners try to trap students by playing around with the question and options. So read the question carefully to understand what is required and see the options with great concentration. Watch out for the questions which are designed to have more than one correct answer and you are supposed to choose the option with multiple correct answers.

5. Plan your exam strategy
Planning the way you attempt various questions is quite crucial to crack the entrance exam. You do not have to approach the question paper the way it is intended to be. The important thing is not to waste time over questions which seem to be difficult. Finish off all the sections which you are really good at so that you can dedicate more time for the difficult ones.

6. Train your mind for the exam
Your mind should be prepared to perform well during an exam. This requires consistency over a long period of time. If you are planning to give your exam in 9-12 slot, you should practice solving papers at the same time so that your mind is trained to be super active during that period.

7. Practice previous year papers
Practicing previous year question papers should be left for the last couple of months before an exam. These are actual questions which have appeared and you should time yourself while answering them so that you can compare your scores. Also, try to attempt the test papers in the same time slot as your final exam.  Refer

8. Use method of elimination
Whenever in doubt use method of elimination to your rescue. Start by eliminating 2 options which have the least possibility of being correct. Sometimes irrespective of the question, the fact contained in the options itself can be used to eliminate them. Selecting a final answer out of 2 is sometimes tricky and if it’s worth the risk you can go with your gut at times. 

9. Learn all the shortcuts
Every student has shortcuts which they use during preparation. Be it for remembering formulas or memorizing charts, use shortcuts to save your time. There are some standard shortcuts which you can tap into but creating your own wouldn’t harm either.

10. Stay Physically and Mentally Balanced
Keeping yourself and your mind healthy is quite neglected during exam preparation but it can have adverse effects in the final outcome. Exercise daily and sleep well so that your mind and body are fresh when you are taking the exam. Avoid sleeping late and tune your mind so that it works best in the time slot of your final exam.

11. Practice, Practice, Practice.
Finally, there is no substitute for practice. 70% of exam preparation is practice. Use this time very effectively by using our platform which can help you plan, save time and improve accuracy.
Practice through our online platform

Karnataka CET Medical Entrance Exam Solved Question Papers



1. Fundamental frequency of an open pipe is :
a. 15 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 10 Hz  
2. If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 20 % then increase in momentum will be :
a. 3000 % b. 10% c. 11% d. 22%  
3. A bomb of 9 kg. blasts into two parts of 3 kg. is 16 m/sec. then the kinetic energy of 6 kg. is 16 m/sec. then the kinetic energy of 6 kg. part is:
a. 24 J b. 48 J c. 96 J d. 92 J  
4. Energy of a photon of 5890 Å wavelength is :
a. 3 x 10-19 J b. 3.6 x 10-24 J c. 3.347 x 10-19 J d. 3.364 x 10-19 J  
5. A car has to cover the distance 60 km. if half of the total time it travels with velocity 80 km./hr. and in rest half time its speed becomes 40 km/hr. the average speed of car will be:
a. 180 kmph b. 120 kmph c. 80 kmph d. 60 kmph  
6. In space charge limited region the plate voltage is 50 Volt and plate current is 100 mA. If the plate voltage is changed to 20 Volt, the plate current will become :
a. 10 mA b. 19 mA c. 25 mA d. 40 mA  
7. Ratio of voltages in a step up transformer is 8. If voltage at primary is 120 volt then the voltage at the secondary will be:
a. 960 Volt b. 180 Volt c. 120 Volt d. 150 Volt  
8. A wire tension 225 N produces 6 beats per second when it tuked with a fork, when the tension changed to 256 N, it again tuned with the same tuning fork to no. of beats remained unchanged, the frequency of tuning fork will be :
a. 186 b. 280 c. 225 d. 256  
9. Which quantity remains conserved as external torque is zero :
a. linear momentum b. angular momentum c. kinetic energy d. potential energy  
10. The distance between centres of earth and moon are D and the mass of earth is 81 times that of mass of moon, the distance from the centre of the earth at which gravitational force on a body will be zero is :
a. D/2 b. 2D/3 c. 4D/3 d. 9D/10  
11. The radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.5 Å and an electron is moving in this orbit with 2 x 106 m/s. velocity, the current due to motion of electron in the orbit will be :
a. 1.5 x 10-2 mA b. 1.5 mA c. 1 mA d. 2.5 mA  
12. Isotopes have :
a. equal no. of neutrons b. equal no. of protons c. equal no. of neutrons but unequal no. of protons d. none  
13. A car is moving with 30 m/s. velocity in 500 m radius path. If the velocity is increasing by 2m/sec2 then the resultant acceleration will be :
a. 4.5 m/sec2 b. 2.7 m/sec2 c. 2.5 m/sec2 d. 2m/sec2  
14. A mass moving with a constant velocity wrt. X-axis, its angular momentum wrt.origin :
a. decreases b. increases c. constant d. zero  
15. Two whistles A and B 660 Hz and 596 Hz frequencies. An observes is standing in the middle of the line joining to source. Source B and observer are moving towards right with velocity 30 m/s. and A is standing at left side. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. the no of beats listen by the observer Is:
a. 8 b. 6 c. 4 d. 2    
16. Laser Rays are :
a. instrument to measure the velocity of aeroplane b. instrument to measure the intensity of X-rays c. measure of frequency d. highly coherent waves  
17. An electric cattle works at 220 volt and 4A current. To boil a 1 kg. water at room temperature 200 C will take time:
a. 12.8 minute b. 6.3 minute c. 6.4 minute d. 12.6 minute    
18. A small sphere of radius r is kept inside a hollow sphere of radius R (R > r) concentrically. The large and small sphere are charged by charges Q and q respectively. Both the sphere are separated from each other. The potential difference depends upon:
a. only on q b. only on Q c. both q and Q d. does not depend upon both    
19. To purchase 1 kg. sugar will be beneficial at :
a. at attitude 400 b. equators c. poles d. at 450 attitude  
20. To electroplate a spoon with silver, one has to place it on :
a. any where in electro lyticsolution b. between anode and cathode c. cathode d. anode  
21. Photo electric effect is based on :
a. Davisson-Germer experiment b. Maxwell,s theory c. Einstein theory d. Plank’s constant  
22. Surface tension is due to :
a. cohesive molecular forces b. gravitational forces c. nuclear forces d. electrical forces  
23. If a stone of mass m is rotated in a vertical circular path of radius 1 meter, the critical velocity will be :
a. 12.64 m/sec. b. 3.16 m/sec. c. 6.32 m/sec. d. 9.48 m/sec.  
24. The half life of a radioactive sample is 3.8, the time after which 1/20th part of the sample will left will be:
a. 66 days b. 16.5 days c. 18 days d. 13.5 days  
25. A wave enters from air into water then what is unchanged :
a. wavelength b. velocity c. amplitude d. frequency  
26. The most covalent amongst these is
a. RMgX b. RNa c. RLi d. RbeX  
27. The number of 90º angles in IF7 are
a. 15 b. 10 c. 5 d. 2  
28. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of Xe in XeF6  is
a. 8 b. 12 c. 14 d. 10  
29. Argon is not able to form any compounds because
a. It has fully filled shell b. It does not have empty d orbitals c. It ionization energy is very high d. It is a noble gas  
30. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO + H2), which of the following is the correct statement?
a. H2 is removed through occlusion with Pd. b. CO is oxidised to CO2 with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO2in alkali. c. CO and H2are fractionally separated using differences in their densities. d. CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu2Cl2solution.    
31. At 800C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid ‘A’ is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid ‘B’ is 1000 mm Hg. If a mixture solution of ‘A’ and ‘B’ boils at 800C and 1 atm pressure, the amount of ‘A’ in the mixture is (1 atm = 760 mm Hg)
a. 48 mol percent b. 50 mol percent c. 52 mol percent d. 34 mol percent  
32. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained is diazotized and then heated with cuprous bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains
a. mixture of o-; and p-bromoanilines b. mixture of o- and m-bromotoluenes c. mixture of o- and p-bromotoluenes d. mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzenes  
33. The organic chloro compound, which shows complete stereochemical inversion during a SN2 reaction, is
a. (CH3)2CHCl b. CH3Cl c. (C2H5)2CHCl d. (CH3)3CCl  
34. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated nitric acid, gives
a. p-nitrophenol b. nitrobenzene c. 2,4,6-trinitrobenzene d. o-nitrophenol  
35. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly?
a. Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides. b. CO2 is more volatile than CS2. c. Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2. d. CO2 is thermodynamically more stable than CS2.  
36. Among the following substituted silanes the one which will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on hydrolysis is
a. R2SiCl2 b. R3SiCl c. R4Si d. RSiCl3  
37. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4 solution in the presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HCl , because HCl
a. reduces permanganate to Mn2+. b. oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water. c. gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine. d. furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid.  
38. The pKa of a weak acid, HA is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be
a. 7.01 b. 9.22 b. 9.58 c. 4.79  
39. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
a. Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase. b. B2H6.2NH3 is known as ‘inorganic benzene’. c. Boric acid is a protonic acid. d. Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six.  
40. The equilibrium constants Kp1 and Kp2  for the reactions  X -> 2Y and Z -> P+Q respectively are in the ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal then the ratio of total pressures at these equilibria Is
a. 1 : 3 b. 1 : 9 c. 1 : 36 d. 1 : 1  
41. The number of d-electrons in Fe+2  (At. no. of Fe = 26) is not equal to that of the
a. p – electrons in Ne (At. no. = 10) b. s-electrons in Mg (At. no. = 12) c. d-electrons in Fe d. p-electrons in Cl (At. no. of Cl = 17)  
42. The radial part of wave function depends on quantum number(s)
a. n only b. l only c. n and l d. l and m  
43. An atom has 2K, 8L and 5M electrons. The number of occupied subshells in the atom in ground state is
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9  
44. The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p respectively are:
a. 2 and 0 b. 1 and 2 c. 0 and 2 d. 2 and 1  
45. The subshell with n = 6 and l = 4 can accommodate a maximum of
a. 18 electrons b. 16 electrons c. 14 electrons d. 10 electrons  
46. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24).The numbers of electrons with the azimuthal quantum numbers, l = 1 and 2 are, respectively:
a. 12 and 4 b. 12 and 5 c. 16 and 4 d. 16 and 5  
47. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is found to be 6.63 x 10-19 J when the metal is irradiated with a radiation of frequency 3 x 1015 Hz . The threshold frequency of the metal is
a. 1 x 1015Hz b. 3 x 1015 Hz c. 2 x 1016 Hz d. 2 x 1015 Hz  
48. In chromium atom, in ground state, the number of occupied orbitals is
a. 14 b. 15 c. 7 d. 12  
49. How many of electrons in an atom can have n  = 3 , l  = 2 and m =+ 2 ?
a. 10 b. 8 c. 6 d. 2  
50. The substance having covalently bonded network structure is
a. Graphite b. Silica c. Red phosphorous d. All of these  


1. Which one of the following is an exotic carp species?
a. Barbus stigma b. Cyprinus carpio c. Labeo bata d. Cirrhinus mrigala  
2. Which stage of malarial parasite is infective to man?
a. Gametocyte b. Merozoite c. Cryptomerozoite d. Sporozoite  
3. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called
a. Biotic potential b. Fertility c. Carrying capacity d. Birth rate  
4. The amount of CSF in the cranial cavity
a. 500 ml b. 140 ml c. 1 litre d. 1.5 ml  
5. The main difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is
a. Cell membrane b. Cell Wall c. Ribosome d. Mitochondria  
6. Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are line by
a. cubical epithelium b. columnar epithelium c. squamous epithelium d. ciliated epithelium  
7. Which of the following is related to humoral immunity ?
a. T-lymphocyte b. B-lymphocyte c. I-lymphocyte d. P-lymphocyte  
8. The Gastrin is secreted from
a. Intestine b. Stomach c. Pancreas d. Rectum  
9. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid ?
a. Testosterone b. Progesterone c. Adrenalin d. Aldosterone  
10. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the
a. proximal tubule b. distal tubule c. collecting duct d. loop of Henle  
11. The reflex arc, which is made of two neurons is known as
a. Monosynsptic reflex arc b. Disynaptic reflex arc c. Polysynaptic reflex arc d. Asynaptic reflex arc  
12. In 24 hours, total glomerular filtrate formed in human kidney is
a. 1.7 litres b. 7 litres c. 17 litres d. 170 litres
13. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?
a. Calcium b. Sodium c. cAMP d. cGMP  
14. What is a genophore ?
a. DNA in prokaryotes b. DNA and RNA in prokaryotes c. DNA and protein in prokaryotes d. RNA in prokaryotes  
15. Who wrote the famous book “Origin of Species”?
a. Larmarck b. Darwin c. De Vries d. Mendel  
16. Electrons used in Electron Microscope are of the wavelength
a. 0.05 Å b. 0.15 Å c. 0.25 Å d. 0.30 Å  
17. Example of water soluble plant pigment is
a. Chlorophyll-a b. Chlorophyll-b c. Anthocyanin d. Xanthophyll  
18. nulin is a polymer of
a. Glucose b. Galactose c. Fructose d. Arabinose  
19. A flower which can be divided into two equal halves by only one plane is
a. Zygomorphic b. Actinomorphic c. Regular d. Perfect  
20. VAM is
a. Symbiotic bacteria b. Saprophytic bacteria c. Saprophytic fungi d. Symbiotic fungi  
21. Ovule integument gets transformed into
a. seed b. fruit wall c. seed coat d. cotyledons  
22. Which one of the following bacterium is used for production of transgenic plants ?
a. Escherichia coli b. Bacillus thuringiensis c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
23. Spindle fibre is made up of
a. humulin b. intermediate filament c. flagellin d. tubulin  
24. Calcium level decreases in the blood due to hyposecretion of
a. Parathyroid hormone b. Calcitonin c. Thyroxine d. Adrenaline  
25. Which centre is stimulated during increase in body temperature ?
a. Anterior hypothalamus b. Posterior hypothalamus c. Limbic system d. Red nucleus  
26. Longest phase of meiosis
a. Prophase I b. Prophase II c. Anaphase I d. Metaphase II  
27. Which of the following substances can cure Parkinson’s disease ?
a. GABA b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Glutamic acid  
28. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by
a. facial nerve b. trigeminal nerve c. hypoglossal nerve d. vagus nerve  
29. Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe?
a. Hearing b. Speech c. Vision d. Memory  
30. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
a. Infants due to protein enertgy malnutrition b. Adults due to protein enertgy malnutrition c. Adults due to Vitamin D deficiency d. Infants due to Vitamin K deficiency  
31. Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as
a. Pepsin b. Mucus c. Rennin d. HCl  
32. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed ?
a. Leptotene b. Zygotene c. Pachytene d. Diplotene  
33. Structural lipids of cell membrane are
a. Simple lipid b. Chromolipids c. Steroid d. Phospholipids  
34. Which one of the following is polysaccharide ?
a. Glycogen b. Sucrose c. Lactose d. Maltose  
35. Which of the following species is restricted to a specific area ?
a. Sibling species b. Allopatric species c. Sympatric species d. Endemic species  
36. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom?
a. Platyhelminthes b. Annelida c. Mollusca d. Echinodermata  
37. Which one of the following cells is not a phagocytic cell ?
a. Macrophage b. Monocyte c. Neutrophil d. Basophil  
38. A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by
a. Proboscis and palpi are long and more or less of equal length b. Proboscis long and palpi short c. Proboscis short and palpi long d. Both proboscis and palpi are short  
39. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called
a. Biotic potential b. Fertility c. Carrying capacity d. Birth rate  
40. When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called
a. Habitat b. Niche c. Ecotone d. Ecotype  
41. The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is
a. Bombyx mori b. Antheraea mylitta c. Antheraea assamensis d. Philosomia ricini  
42. Which one is imino acid?
a. Pepsin b. Proline c. Cysteine d. Renin  
43. ACTH is secreted from
a. Adrenal cortex b. Pituitary c. Adrenal Medulla d. Thyroid  
44. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse ?
a. SA node à AV node à Bundle of His à Purkinje fibers b. AV node à Bundle of His à SA node à Purkinje fibers c. SA node à Purkinje fibers à AV node à Bundle of His d. Purkinje fibers à AV node à SA node à Bundle of His  
45. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by
a. CT Scan b. Sphygmomanometer c. ECG d. EEG  
46. Fertilization occur in
a. Uterus b. Ureter c. Vagina d. Fallopian tube    
47. A young boy has sickle cell trait. Which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated? a.  IV regional anaesthesia b.  Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach c. Brachia plexus block by infraclavicular approach d.  Brachial plexus block by axillary approach  
48. Local anaesthesia causing methemoglobinemia
a. Procaine b. Prilocaine c. Etiodicaine d. Ropivacaine  
49. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are all except:
a. Cricothyroid b. Thyrohyoid c. Hyoepiglottie d. Cricotracheal  
50. True about prostatic urethra are all except:
a. Trapezoid in cross section b. Presence of verumontanum c. Openings of prostatic ducts d. Contains urethral crest  

1) a  2)     c 3)     d 4)     c 5)     d 6)     c 7)     a 8)     a 9)     b 10)   a 11)   c 12)   b 13)   b 14)   c 15)  c 16)  d 17)  b 18)  a 19)  b 20)  c 21)  c 22)  a 23)  b 24)  b 25)  d 26)  d 27)  d 28)  c 29)  c 30)  b 31)  b 32)  c 33)  b 34)  d 35)  a 36)  d 37)  a 38)  a 39)  a 40)  c 41)  d 42)  c 43)  b 44)  a 45)  a 46)  b 47)  d 48)  b 49)  d 50)  b
Set-2 (Biology)
1)    b 2)    d 3)    a 4)    b 5)    b 6)    d 7)    b 8)    b 9)    d 10)  a 11)  a 12)  d 13)  b 14)  a 15)  b 16)  a 17)  c 18)  c 19)  a 20)  d 21)  c 22)  d 23)  d 24)  a 25)  a 26)  a 27)  c 28)  c 29)  c 30)  c 31)  d 32)  c 33)  d 34)  a 35)  d 36)   37)  d 38)  a 39)  a 40)  c 41)  b 42)  b 43) b 44)  a 45)  d 46)  d 47)  a 48)  b 49)  a 50)  a