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Sunday, 18 January 2015

Karnataka CET Medical Entrance Exam Solved Question Papers


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SET 1 :- ( PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY)


1. Fundamental frequency of an open pipe is :
a. 15 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 10 Hz  
2. If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 20 % then increase in momentum will be :
a. 3000 % b. 10% c. 11% d. 22%  
3. A bomb of 9 kg. blasts into two parts of 3 kg. is 16 m/sec. then the kinetic energy of 6 kg. is 16 m/sec. then the kinetic energy of 6 kg. part is:
a. 24 J b. 48 J c. 96 J d. 92 J  
4. Energy of a photon of 5890 Å wavelength is :
a. 3 x 10-19 J b. 3.6 x 10-24 J c. 3.347 x 10-19 J d. 3.364 x 10-19 J  
5. A car has to cover the distance 60 km. if half of the total time it travels with velocity 80 km./hr. and in rest half time its speed becomes 40 km/hr. the average speed of car will be:
a. 180 kmph b. 120 kmph c. 80 kmph d. 60 kmph  
6. In space charge limited region the plate voltage is 50 Volt and plate current is 100 mA. If the plate voltage is changed to 20 Volt, the plate current will become :
a. 10 mA b. 19 mA c. 25 mA d. 40 mA  
7. Ratio of voltages in a step up transformer is 8. If voltage at primary is 120 volt then the voltage at the secondary will be:
a. 960 Volt b. 180 Volt c. 120 Volt d. 150 Volt  
8. A wire tension 225 N produces 6 beats per second when it tuked with a fork, when the tension changed to 256 N, it again tuned with the same tuning fork to no. of beats remained unchanged, the frequency of tuning fork will be :
a. 186 b. 280 c. 225 d. 256  
9. Which quantity remains conserved as external torque is zero :
a. linear momentum b. angular momentum c. kinetic energy d. potential energy  
10. The distance between centres of earth and moon are D and the mass of earth is 81 times that of mass of moon, the distance from the centre of the earth at which gravitational force on a body will be zero is :
a. D/2 b. 2D/3 c. 4D/3 d. 9D/10  
11. The radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.5 Å and an electron is moving in this orbit with 2 x 106 m/s. velocity, the current due to motion of electron in the orbit will be :
a. 1.5 x 10-2 mA b. 1.5 mA c. 1 mA d. 2.5 mA  
12. Isotopes have :
a. equal no. of neutrons b. equal no. of protons c. equal no. of neutrons but unequal no. of protons d. none  
13. A car is moving with 30 m/s. velocity in 500 m radius path. If the velocity is increasing by 2m/sec2 then the resultant acceleration will be :
a. 4.5 m/sec2 b. 2.7 m/sec2 c. 2.5 m/sec2 d. 2m/sec2  
14. A mass moving with a constant velocity wrt. X-axis, its angular momentum wrt.origin :
a. decreases b. increases c. constant d. zero  
15. Two whistles A and B 660 Hz and 596 Hz frequencies. An observes is standing in the middle of the line joining to source. Source B and observer are moving towards right with velocity 30 m/s. and A is standing at left side. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. the no of beats listen by the observer Is:
a. 8 b. 6 c. 4 d. 2    
16. Laser Rays are :
a. instrument to measure the velocity of aeroplane b. instrument to measure the intensity of X-rays c. measure of frequency d. highly coherent waves  
17. An electric cattle works at 220 volt and 4A current. To boil a 1 kg. water at room temperature 200 C will take time:
a. 12.8 minute b. 6.3 minute c. 6.4 minute d. 12.6 minute    
18. A small sphere of radius r is kept inside a hollow sphere of radius R (R > r) concentrically. The large and small sphere are charged by charges Q and q respectively. Both the sphere are separated from each other. The potential difference depends upon:
a. only on q b. only on Q c. both q and Q d. does not depend upon both    
19. To purchase 1 kg. sugar will be beneficial at :
a. at attitude 400 b. equators c. poles d. at 450 attitude  
20. To electroplate a spoon with silver, one has to place it on :
a. any where in electro lyticsolution b. between anode and cathode c. cathode d. anode  
21. Photo electric effect is based on :
a. Davisson-Germer experiment b. Maxwell,s theory c. Einstein theory d. Plank’s constant  
22. Surface tension is due to :
a. cohesive molecular forces b. gravitational forces c. nuclear forces d. electrical forces  
23. If a stone of mass m is rotated in a vertical circular path of radius 1 meter, the critical velocity will be :
a. 12.64 m/sec. b. 3.16 m/sec. c. 6.32 m/sec. d. 9.48 m/sec.  
24. The half life of a radioactive sample is 3.8, the time after which 1/20th part of the sample will left will be:
a. 66 days b. 16.5 days c. 18 days d. 13.5 days  
25. A wave enters from air into water then what is unchanged :
a. wavelength b. velocity c. amplitude d. frequency  
26. The most covalent amongst these is
a. RMgX b. RNa c. RLi d. RbeX  
27. The number of 90º angles in IF7 are
a. 15 b. 10 c. 5 d. 2  
28. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of Xe in XeF6  is
a. 8 b. 12 c. 14 d. 10  
29. Argon is not able to form any compounds because
a. It has fully filled shell b. It does not have empty d orbitals c. It ionization energy is very high d. It is a noble gas  
30. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO + H2), which of the following is the correct statement?
a. H2 is removed through occlusion with Pd. b. CO is oxidised to CO2 with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO2in alkali. c. CO and H2are fractionally separated using differences in their densities. d. CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu2Cl2solution.    
31. At 800C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid ‘A’ is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid ‘B’ is 1000 mm Hg. If a mixture solution of ‘A’ and ‘B’ boils at 800C and 1 atm pressure, the amount of ‘A’ in the mixture is (1 atm = 760 mm Hg)
a. 48 mol percent b. 50 mol percent c. 52 mol percent d. 34 mol percent  
32. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained is diazotized and then heated with cuprous bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains
a. mixture of o-; and p-bromoanilines b. mixture of o- and m-bromotoluenes c. mixture of o- and p-bromotoluenes d. mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzenes  
33. The organic chloro compound, which shows complete stereochemical inversion during a SN2 reaction, is
a. (CH3)2CHCl b. CH3Cl c. (C2H5)2CHCl d. (CH3)3CCl  
34. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated nitric acid, gives
a. p-nitrophenol b. nitrobenzene c. 2,4,6-trinitrobenzene d. o-nitrophenol  
35. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly?
a. Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides. b. CO2 is more volatile than CS2. c. Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2. d. CO2 is thermodynamically more stable than CS2.  
36. Among the following substituted silanes the one which will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on hydrolysis is
a. R2SiCl2 b. R3SiCl c. R4Si d. RSiCl3  
37. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4 solution in the presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HCl , because HCl
a. reduces permanganate to Mn2+. b. oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water. c. gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine. d. furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid.  
38. The pKa of a weak acid, HA is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be
a. 7.01 b. 9.22 b. 9.58 c. 4.79  
39. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
a. Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase. b. B2H6.2NH3 is known as ‘inorganic benzene’. c. Boric acid is a protonic acid. d. Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six.  
40. The equilibrium constants Kp1 and Kp2  for the reactions  X -> 2Y and Z -> P+Q respectively are in the ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal then the ratio of total pressures at these equilibria Is
a. 1 : 3 b. 1 : 9 c. 1 : 36 d. 1 : 1  
41. The number of d-electrons in Fe+2  (At. no. of Fe = 26) is not equal to that of the
a. p – electrons in Ne (At. no. = 10) b. s-electrons in Mg (At. no. = 12) c. d-electrons in Fe d. p-electrons in Cl (At. no. of Cl = 17)  
42. The radial part of wave function depends on quantum number(s)
a. n only b. l only c. n and l d. l and m  
43. An atom has 2K, 8L and 5M electrons. The number of occupied subshells in the atom in ground state is
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9  
44. The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p respectively are:
a. 2 and 0 b. 1 and 2 c. 0 and 2 d. 2 and 1  
45. The subshell with n = 6 and l = 4 can accommodate a maximum of
a. 18 electrons b. 16 electrons c. 14 electrons d. 10 electrons  
46. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24).The numbers of electrons with the azimuthal quantum numbers, l = 1 and 2 are, respectively:
a. 12 and 4 b. 12 and 5 c. 16 and 4 d. 16 and 5  
47. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is found to be 6.63 x 10-19 J when the metal is irradiated with a radiation of frequency 3 x 1015 Hz . The threshold frequency of the metal is
a. 1 x 1015Hz b. 3 x 1015 Hz c. 2 x 1016 Hz d. 2 x 1015 Hz  
48. In chromium atom, in ground state, the number of occupied orbitals is
a. 14 b. 15 c. 7 d. 12  
49. How many of electrons in an atom can have n  = 3 , l  = 2 and m =+ 2 ?
a. 10 b. 8 c. 6 d. 2  
50. The substance having covalently bonded network structure is
a. Graphite b. Silica c. Red phosphorous d. All of these  



SET 2 :- ( BIOLOGY)


1. Which one of the following is an exotic carp species?
a. Barbus stigma b. Cyprinus carpio c. Labeo bata d. Cirrhinus mrigala  
2. Which stage of malarial parasite is infective to man?
a. Gametocyte b. Merozoite c. Cryptomerozoite d. Sporozoite  
3. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called
a. Biotic potential b. Fertility c. Carrying capacity d. Birth rate  
4. The amount of CSF in the cranial cavity
a. 500 ml b. 140 ml c. 1 litre d. 1.5 ml  
5. The main difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is
a. Cell membrane b. Cell Wall c. Ribosome d. Mitochondria  
6. Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are line by
a. cubical epithelium b. columnar epithelium c. squamous epithelium d. ciliated epithelium  
7. Which of the following is related to humoral immunity ?
a. T-lymphocyte b. B-lymphocyte c. I-lymphocyte d. P-lymphocyte  
8. The Gastrin is secreted from
a. Intestine b. Stomach c. Pancreas d. Rectum  
9. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid ?
a. Testosterone b. Progesterone c. Adrenalin d. Aldosterone  
10. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the
a. proximal tubule b. distal tubule c. collecting duct d. loop of Henle  
11. The reflex arc, which is made of two neurons is known as
a. Monosynsptic reflex arc b. Disynaptic reflex arc c. Polysynaptic reflex arc d. Asynaptic reflex arc  
12. In 24 hours, total glomerular filtrate formed in human kidney is
a. 1.7 litres b. 7 litres c. 17 litres d. 170 litres
13. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?
a. Calcium b. Sodium c. cAMP d. cGMP  
14. What is a genophore ?
a. DNA in prokaryotes b. DNA and RNA in prokaryotes c. DNA and protein in prokaryotes d. RNA in prokaryotes  
15. Who wrote the famous book “Origin of Species”?
a. Larmarck b. Darwin c. De Vries d. Mendel  
16. Electrons used in Electron Microscope are of the wavelength
a. 0.05 Å b. 0.15 Å c. 0.25 Å d. 0.30 Å  
17. Example of water soluble plant pigment is
a. Chlorophyll-a b. Chlorophyll-b c. Anthocyanin d. Xanthophyll  
18. nulin is a polymer of
a. Glucose b. Galactose c. Fructose d. Arabinose  
19. A flower which can be divided into two equal halves by only one plane is
a. Zygomorphic b. Actinomorphic c. Regular d. Perfect  
20. VAM is
a. Symbiotic bacteria b. Saprophytic bacteria c. Saprophytic fungi d. Symbiotic fungi  
21. Ovule integument gets transformed into
a. seed b. fruit wall c. seed coat d. cotyledons  
22. Which one of the following bacterium is used for production of transgenic plants ?
a. Escherichia coli b. Bacillus thuringiensis c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
23. Spindle fibre is made up of
a. humulin b. intermediate filament c. flagellin d. tubulin  
24. Calcium level decreases in the blood due to hyposecretion of
a. Parathyroid hormone b. Calcitonin c. Thyroxine d. Adrenaline  
25. Which centre is stimulated during increase in body temperature ?
a. Anterior hypothalamus b. Posterior hypothalamus c. Limbic system d. Red nucleus  
26. Longest phase of meiosis
a. Prophase I b. Prophase II c. Anaphase I d. Metaphase II  
27. Which of the following substances can cure Parkinson’s disease ?
a. GABA b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Glutamic acid  
28. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by
a. facial nerve b. trigeminal nerve c. hypoglossal nerve d. vagus nerve  
29. Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe?
a. Hearing b. Speech c. Vision d. Memory  
30. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
a. Infants due to protein enertgy malnutrition b. Adults due to protein enertgy malnutrition c. Adults due to Vitamin D deficiency d. Infants due to Vitamin K deficiency  
31. Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as
a. Pepsin b. Mucus c. Rennin d. HCl  
32. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed ?
a. Leptotene b. Zygotene c. Pachytene d. Diplotene  
33. Structural lipids of cell membrane are
a. Simple lipid b. Chromolipids c. Steroid d. Phospholipids  
34. Which one of the following is polysaccharide ?
a. Glycogen b. Sucrose c. Lactose d. Maltose  
35. Which of the following species is restricted to a specific area ?
a. Sibling species b. Allopatric species c. Sympatric species d. Endemic species  
36. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom?
a. Platyhelminthes b. Annelida c. Mollusca d. Echinodermata  
37. Which one of the following cells is not a phagocytic cell ?
a. Macrophage b. Monocyte c. Neutrophil d. Basophil  
38. A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by
a. Proboscis and palpi are long and more or less of equal length b. Proboscis long and palpi short c. Proboscis short and palpi long d. Both proboscis and palpi are short  
39. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called
a. Biotic potential b. Fertility c. Carrying capacity d. Birth rate  
40. When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called
a. Habitat b. Niche c. Ecotone d. Ecotype  
41. The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is
a. Bombyx mori b. Antheraea mylitta c. Antheraea assamensis d. Philosomia ricini  
42. Which one is imino acid?
a. Pepsin b. Proline c. Cysteine d. Renin  
43. ACTH is secreted from
a. Adrenal cortex b. Pituitary c. Adrenal Medulla d. Thyroid  
44. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse ?
a. SA node à AV node à Bundle of His à Purkinje fibers b. AV node à Bundle of His à SA node à Purkinje fibers c. SA node à Purkinje fibers à AV node à Bundle of His d. Purkinje fibers à AV node à SA node à Bundle of His  
45. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by
a. CT Scan b. Sphygmomanometer c. ECG d. EEG  
46. Fertilization occur in
a. Uterus b. Ureter c. Vagina d. Fallopian tube    
47. A young boy has sickle cell trait. Which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated? a.  IV regional anaesthesia b.  Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach c. Brachia plexus block by infraclavicular approach d.  Brachial plexus block by axillary approach  
48. Local anaesthesia causing methemoglobinemia
a. Procaine b. Prilocaine c. Etiodicaine d. Ropivacaine  
49. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are all except:
a. Cricothyroid b. Thyrohyoid c. Hyoepiglottie d. Cricotracheal  
50. True about prostatic urethra are all except:
a. Trapezoid in cross section b. Presence of verumontanum c. Openings of prostatic ducts d. Contains urethral crest  


 ANSWERS:- SET-1
1) a  2)     c 3)     d 4)     c 5)     d 6)     c 7)     a 8)     a 9)     b 10)   a 11)   c 12)   b 13)   b 14)   c 15)  c 16)  d 17)  b 18)  a 19)  b 20)  c 21)  c 22)  a 23)  b 24)  b 25)  d 26)  d 27)  d 28)  c 29)  c 30)  b 31)  b 32)  c 33)  b 34)  d 35)  a 36)  d 37)  a 38)  a 39)  a 40)  c 41)  d 42)  c 43)  b 44)  a 45)  a 46)  b 47)  d 48)  b 49)  d 50)  b
Set-2 (Biology)
1)    b 2)    d 3)    a 4)    b 5)    b 6)    d 7)    b 8)    b 9)    d 10)  a 11)  a 12)  d 13)  b 14)  a 15)  b 16)  a 17)  c 18)  c 19)  a 20)  d 21)  c 22)  d 23)  d 24)  a 25)  a 26)  a 27)  c 28)  c 29)  c 30)  c 31)  d 32)  c 33)  d 34)  a 35)  d 36)   37)  d 38)  a 39)  a 40)  c 41)  b 42)  b 43) b 44)  a 45)  d 46)  d 47)  a 48)  b 49)  a 50)  a

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